Yes, but the slaves have a large percentage of slave-owner blood in them. Now, it might have been rape or the women trading sex for lower-work jobs, but the fact remains that almost all blacks in this country have MORE slave-owner blood in them than whites. Proportionately, few whites owned slaves, and most came here after slavery was abolished. There were also a number of free black men who WERE slave-owners.

So basically, you are saying that people whose ancestors never had anything to do with slavery should be paying descendants of slave-owners for their own ancestor's misdeeds?