Let me see if I got this right...

So there is supposed to be a virus out there. Lab/nature/whatever.

They supposedly got the genetic code from China. And as far as I can tell they used computer modeling to determine the code as they didn't fully isolate/purify the virus itself.

This genetic code was then used to create the PCR test and is the same sequence used by the "vaccines" to make your body make the same spike protein.

They count anyone who is within 15 days of their last-in-series shots as being "unvaccinated." Meaning if you got an mRNA shot now it would be over a month before you'd count as vaccinated. For Pfizer with a 3rd(+) dose and saying you need to wait 6-8 months after the second dose this would mean you would be counted as "unvaccinated" for over half a year from when you start.

Now, you get injected with something that makes you make a spike protein that is shown by itself to cause damage. That same spike protein is what the PCR test is looking for. So, if you get a shot and weeks later get sick and end up in the hospital you're likely to test positive. Yet you'd count as "unvaccinated" during this huge block of time you'd be likely to be experiencing "side effects." And because you test positive, all those side effects would become the result of CV and not the shot itself, because you still are being counted as "unvaccinated."

Is that about right?