MARRIAGE OF THE LAMB PROVES POST TRIBULATION "RAPTURE"

I assume if you are here you have an understanding of what the marriage of the Lamb is all about. If not. Real quickly, it is an analogy used to help us understand the uniting of the church (bride) with Christ (lamb) The resurrection and "rapture" of the church is that event.

The next question is WHEN will this occur?

Revelation tells us:

Look at the chronological order of events in chapter 19:

Babylon is fallen. (Headquarter city to the Antichrist – Rev 19:2)
The marriage of the Lamb is come (Rev 19:7-9)
Christ descends from heaven to tread the winepress (The battle of Armageddon - Rev 19:15)

This is the first mention of the marriage in Revelation and it's listed to occur after the fall of Babylon.

But where does the fall of Babylon occur in the grand scheme of things?

Revelation chapter 13 & 14 is a good resource for getting a broader look of things at the time of the end.

Here is the order given:

Antichrist rises (Rev 13:1-4)
Power is given to him for 3 ½ years (great tribulation) by Satan (Rev 13:5)
He blasphemes God almighty (Rev 13:6)
He wages war against the saints (Rev 13:7)
The false prophet rises (Rev 13:11-18)
A vision of the 144,000 (Rev 14:1-5)
Angel declares that Babylon is fallen, is fallen. (Headquarter city to the Antichrist) (Rev 14:8)
Christ sends his angels to gather the elect (Rev 14:16)
Christ sends his angels to gather the wicked (Rev 14:19)
Winepress is trodden (The battle of Armageddon - Rev 14:20)

Notice that Revelation 19 begins to mirror this list of events starting at Revelation 14:8 with the fall of Babylon? It's because Revelation 19 is simply recapping the timeline given here in Revelation 14!

If we scrutinize it we see that everything is identical except for one thing.

Rev 14 describes angels reaping the earth in verse 16.
Rev 19 decides to use the term "marriage of the Lamb" in it's place!

Why? Because it's the same thing! John, the author, simply decides to describe the same event of Rev 14:16 only figuratively in chapter 19 using the term "marriage of the Lamb" in it's place!

Why did John do this?

Because Jesus did the same thing in Matthew 24 when describing the end of the age to his disciples!

Here is the literal description of the gathering from Jesus given in Matt 24 which parallels Rev 14:16:

Matthew 24:30-31
30And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
31And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

At the time of the resurrection and “rapture”, Jesus will descend from heaven, but in all actuality will send his angels to aid him in gathering his elect for him while he waits for us in the air. We will then meet him there as referred to in I Thess 4:16-17. “to be with him in the air”

Jesus then, in the very next chapter, begins speaking figuratively via parable about 5 out of 10 virgins meeting the Bridgegroom for a marriage.

The truth is that the marriage of the Lamb concept used by John in Revelation originated with this parable of the marriage spoken of by Christ! It is a type or picture used by him to help his disciples understand the mysteries concerning the gathering of the elect, which he had just explained to them as occurring IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE GREAT TRIBULATION!

Point 2:

Bring your attention back to the timeline of Revelation 13, 14. Notice that the gathering (listed as marriage in chapter 19) is listed to occur after the rise of the antichrist which is given power during the 3.5 year great tribulation. If the marriage was to occur before the trib, shouldn't it be listed somewhere back in the 12th chapter? THE MARRIAGE WILL OCCUR AFTER!

A little common sense and a simplistic approach will take you a long way.

May God enrich you all with divine wisdom and understanding. Peace.